PCNSA Exam Sample Questions Answers

Question No 1:

Employees are shown an application block page when they try to access YouTube. Which security policy is blocking the YouTube application?

A. intrazone-default
B. Deny Google
C. allowed-security services
D. interzone-default

Answer: D

Question No 2:

Which User-ID agent would be appropriate in a network with multiple WAN links, limited network bandwidth, and limited firewall management plane resources?

A. Windows-based agent deployed on the internal network
B. PAN-OS integrated agent deployed on the internal network
C. Citrix terminal server deployed on the internal network
D. Windows-based agent deployed on each of the WAN Links

Answer: A

Question No 3:

How many zones can an interface be assigned with a Palo Alto Networks firewall?

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. one

Answer: D

Question No 4:

When creating a Source NAT policy, which entry in the Translated Packet tab will display the options Dynamic IP and Port, Dynamic, Static IP, and None?

A. Translation Type
B. Interface
C. Address Type
D. IP Address

Answer: A

Question No 5:

Users from the internal zone need to be allowed to Telnet into a server in the DMZ zone. Complete the security policy to ensure only Telnet is allowed. Security Policy: Source Zone: Internal to DMZ Zone services “Application defaults”, and action = Allow

A. Destination IP: 192.168.1.123/24
B. Application = ‘Telnet’
C. Log Forwarding
D. USER-ID = ‘Allow users in Trusted’

Answer: B

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5V0-31.19 Exam Sample Questions Answers

Following are some 5V0-31.19 braindumps sample questions answers.

Question: 1

Which mode enables sharing tags and tag categories between an on-premises vSphere environment and

a VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC?
A. vCenter Linked Mode
B. Hybrid Linked Mode
C. vCenter Embedded Linked Mode
D. Enhanced Linked Mode

Answer: B

Reference:

https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Cloud-on-AWS/services/vmc-aws-manage-data-center.pdf
page 13

Question: 2

An administrator wants to enable a VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC to interoperate with an on-premises
SDDC.
How this is achieved?

An administrator wants to enable a VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC to interoperate with an on-premises
SDDC.

How this is achieved?

A. Use the SDDC console to configure the IPSEC VPN connection between the VMware Cloud on AWS
and on-premises vSphere SDDC.
B. Specify the static IP address of the on-premises SDDC when initially requesting a new VMware Cloud
on AWS SDDC.
C. Use the AWS management Console to configure the connection between the VMware Cloud on AWS
and on-premises vSphere SDDC.
D. Specify the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the on-premises SDDC when initially requesting a
new VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC.

Answer: C

Set up a VPN connection between your on-premises data center and your SDDC. See “Configuring VPNs
and Gateways” in Getting Started With VMware Cloud on AWS

Reference:

https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Cloud-on-AWS/services/vmc-aws-operations.pdf

Question: 3

What is a benefit of using VMware Cloud on AWS for the deployment of VMware Horizon?

A. VMware Horizon licensing charges are included in cost of using VMware Cloud on AWS.
B. Customers are relieved of the responsibilities for managing their VMware Horizon Connection Server.
C. An entire VMware SDDC can be deployed in under a few hours.
D. Customers have control of the infrastructure underlying their instance of VMware Horizon on VMware
Cloud on AWS.

Answer: C

An entire VMware SDDC in under a couple of hours

Reference:

https://www.vmware.com/products/horizon/horizon-on-vmc-aws.html

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HPE2-K42 Exam Sample Questions Answers

Question No 1:

What are primary components of AF controller head shelf? (Choose three.)

A. removable NVDIMM
B. hard disk drives
C. solid state disks
D. dual power supplies
E. dual controllers
F. management controller

Answer: C D E

Question No 2:

Which technology is being used to protect the contents of the NVDIMM in the event of an unexpected power loss to the AF-Series array?

A. TwinCap
B. Ni-Cd battery
C. UltraCAp
D. Ni-MH battery

Answer: D

Question No 3:

What are possible ‘Replication Status’ states when replicating volumes across arrays? (Select three.)

A. In-progress
B. Copying
C. Pending
D. Failed
E. N/A
F. Scheduled

Answer: A C E

Question No 4:

Which deduplication approach does the AF-Series use?

A. object-level differencing
B. post-process deduplication
C. host-based deduplication
D. inline deduplication

Answer: D

Question No 5:

Which tools can you use on a Windows host to connect to iSCSI volumes on an HPE Nimble array? (Choose two.)

A. HPE Nimble Connection Wizard
B. Microsoft iSCSI Initiator
C. HPE Nimble Connection Manager
D. HPE Nimble Windows Toolkit

Answer: C D

N10-007 Exam Sample Questions Answers

Question No 1:

Which of the following provides the MOST protection against zero day attacks via email attachments?

A. Anti-spam
B. Anti-virus
C. Host-based firewalls
D. Patch management

Answer: A

Question No 2:

Jeff, a network engineer, is troubleshooting an issue where clients are not receiving IP addresses from a new, properly configured DHCP server on another subnet. Statically addressed clients can get onto the same network with no issues. Which of the following is causing the issue?

A. Incorrect VLAN tagging
B. Missing helper addresses
C. Wrong default gateway
D. Improper routing protocols

Answer: B

Question No 3:

Which of the following is networking stand-alone hardware that will permit any WiFi-compliant device to connect to a network?

A. Wireless hub
B. Wireless firewall
C. Wireless access point
D. Wireless bridge

Answer: C

Question No 4:

Which of the following media types can carry a standard Ethernet signal for network connectivity?

A. USB
B. PArallel
C. Serial
D. CAT6

Answer: D

Question No 5:

A technician is responsible for configuring a new firewall. The hardware team has already installed, powered, and connected the system. Which of the following types of documentation should the technician utilize to complete the task?

A. Rack diagram
B. IDF/MDF documentation
C. Network performance baseline
D. Logical and physical diagrams

Answer: D

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PMP Exam Sample Questions Answers

Question No 1:

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

A. Scope baseline

B. Organizational process assets

C. Project schedule

D. Resource calendars

Answer: D

Question No 2:

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

A. establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B. influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C. monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D. observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

Answer: D

Question No 3:

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

A. Project Plan

B. Responsibility Matrix

C. Issue Log

D. Scope Document

Answer: C

Question No 4:

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

A. Project sponsor

B. Project manager

C. Person responsible for project scheduling

D. Person who is most familiar with the task

Answer: D

Question No 5:

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

A. Perform Quality Control

B. Perform Quality Assurance

C. Plan Quality

D. Report Performance

Answer: A


SY0-501 Exam Sample Questions Answers

Question No 1:

In order for network monitoring to work properly, you need a PC and a network card running in what mode?

A. Launch
B. Exposed
C. Promiscuous
D. Sweep

Answer: C

Question No 2:

Which of the following utilities can be used in Linux to view a list of users’ failed authentication attempts?

A. badlog
B. faillog
C. wronglog
D. killlog

Answer: B

Question No 3:

A periodic update that corrects problems in one version of a product is called a

A. Hotfix
B. Overhaul
C. Service pack
D. Security update

Answer: C

Question No 4:

A user has received an email from an external source which asks for details on the company’s new product line set for release in one month. The user has a detailed spec sheet but it is marked “Internal Proprietary Information”. Which of the following should the user do NEXT?

A. Contact their manager and request guidance on how to best move forward
B. Contact the help desk and/or incident response team to determine next steps
C. Provide the requestor with the email information since it will be released soon anyway
D. Reply back to the requestor to gain their contact information and call them

Answer: B

Question No 5:

Which of the following should be deployed to prevent the transmission of malicious traffic between virtual machines hosted on a singular physical device on a network?

A. HIPS on each virtual machine
B. NIPS on the network
C. NIDS on the network
D. HIDS on each virtual machine

Answer: A

PCNSE Exam Sample Questions Answers

Question No 1:

What are the differences between using a service versus using an application for Security Policy match?

A. Use of a “service” enables the firewall to take immediate action with the first observed packet based on port numbers. Use of an “application” allows the firewall
to take immediate action if the port being used is a member of the application standard port list.
B. There are no differences between “service” or “application”. Use of an “application” simplifies configuration by allowing use of a friendly application name instead
of port numbers.
C. Use of a “service” enables the firewall to take immediate action with the first observed packet based on port numbers. Use of an “application” allows the firewall
to take action after enough packets allow for App-ID identification regardless of the ports being used
D. Use of a “service” enables the firewall to take action after enough packets allow for App-ID identification

Answer: A

Question No 2:

The certificate information displayed in the following image is for which type of certificate?

A. Forward Trust certificate
B. Self-Signed Root CA certificate
C. Web Server certificate
D. Public CA signed certificate

Answer: B

Question No 3:

An administrator using an enterprise PKI needs to establish a unique chain of trust to ensure mutual authentication between Panorama and the managed firewalls and Log Collectors. How would the administrator establish the chain of trust?

A. Use custom certificates
B. Enable LDAP or RADIUS integration
C. Set up multi-factor authentication
D. Configure strong password authentication

Answer: A

Question No 4:

Which two benefits come from assigning a Decryption Profile to a Decryption policy rule with a “No Decrypt” action? (Choose two.)

A. Block sessions with expired certificates
B. Block sessions with client authentication
C. Block sessions with unsupported cipher suites
D. Block sessions with untrusted issuers
E. Block credential phishing

Answer: A, D

Question No 5:

A customer wants to set up a site-to-site VPN using tunnel interfaces.
Which two formats are correct for naming tunnel interfaces? (Choose two.)

A. tunnel.1
B. vpn-tunnel.1
C. tunnel.1025
D. vpn-tunnel.1024

Answer: A, C

VMCE_V9 Sample Exam Questions Answers

Question No 1:

In Veeam Backup & Replication, encryption can be enabled at rest for following: (Choose three.)

A. Backup job
B. Tapes in media pools
C. Backup Copy job
D. Backup to tape job
E. Replication job

Answer: A B C

Question No 2:

Veeam Extract utility can be used to recover VMs from a full backup file (VBK). The extract utility does not require any interaction with Veeam Backup & Replication and can be used as an independent tool on Linux and Microsoft Windows machines.
Where is Veeam Extract utility located?

A. On the Veeam website in the Free tools section and in the Veeam Backup & Replication ISO file
B. %PROGRAMDATA%\Veeam folder
C. %PROGRAMFILES%\Veeam\Backup and Replication\Backup folder

Answer: C

Question No 3:

Veeam Explorer for Microsoft SQL Server offers which of the following capabilities? (Select 3 options)

A. Restoring a database to the original server or different server
B. Restoring a SQL table to the original server or different server
C. Exporting a database to a local folder or network drive
D. Sending SQL tables as attachments via email

Answer: A, B, C

Question No 4:

Which of the following statements are true in regards to the Veeam plug-in for VMware vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)

A. Automatically deleting a VeeamZIP backup after a certain time interval is not possible if created through VMware vSphere Web Client
B. To open Veeam ONE reports, accounts must also be included in the Veeam ONE Users or Veeam ONE Administrators groups
C. Encrypted backups are not possible if created through VMware vSphere Web Client
D. The Backup sub-menu offers three options: VeeamZIP, VeeamZIP to …, and QuickBackup

Answer: A, B

Question No 5:

Which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs can use secondary NetApp systems (SnapMirror and SnapVault) as a data source?

A. Backup
B. Tape backup
C. Replication
D. VM copy

Answer: A